Plato s Apology Questions On Socrates - 1104 Words

Leigh Alexander Professor Tony Hanson Philosophy 001 September 04, 2017 Plato’s Apology Questions 01) Socrates says he faces two groups of accusers or accusations What/who are these? Socrates faces old accusers who for years have accused him of things he has not done. Socrates fears these accusers but he believes that they are not the worst of them. Socrates believes the far more dangerous accusers are the ones who have grown up as children in these falsehood beliefs and have these views embed in their minds. Socrates was accused of corrupting the youth and not believing in the Gods. 02) Why does Socrates say he developed a bad reputation many people? Socrates believes he developed a bad reputation to many people because he was trying†¦show more content†¦Sophists taught the way of making the weak argument look stronger. Socrates said he was not like a Presocratic or Sophists. During the time Socrates was alive Athens was a male Democracy and he was an elitist. He created himself a reputation for a kind wisdom that was not authority ridden. 06) What were the specific legal charges against Socrates? Socrates was charged with corrupting the youth by teaching them to question life and what authority was teaching them. He was also charged for questioning the Gods. While Athens was at the time a Democratic city, Socrates was an elitist. Socrates was brought into a stadium in Athens where his trial was held. The jury of 501 men found him guilty. 07) How does Socrates respond to each charge? Be as specific as you can. When Socrates talks about his charge of corrupting the youth he answers, â€Å"And when you accuse me of corrupting and deteriorating the youth, do you allege that I corrupt them intentionally or unintentionally?†. Socrates concludes with, â€Å"I suppose you mean, as I infer from your indictment, that I teach them not to acknowledge the gods which the state acknowledges, but some other new divinities or spiritual agencies in their stead. These are the lessons which corrupt the youth, as you say.†. From the beginning to the end of his speech he goes back andShow MoreRelatedPlato s Apology And The Apology1591 Words   |  7 PagesIn this paper I will discuss how Plato s Apology and Phaedo have difference ideas of what it means to be a philosopher. I will explain how in the Apology, the philosopher is wise in how he/she understand that they are wise because they know that they don t know, and in Phadeo the philosopher knowledgable and are concern in gaining more knowl edge. In Plato s Apology we learn about Socrates life and who he really is. In platos Apology a philosopher is a wise person because he understands thatRead MorePlatos Apology, Summary, Main Characters750 Words   |  3 PagesSocrates - The protagonist of The Apology, as well as all of Plato s other dialogues. Socrates seems to be a very simple man, not having many material possessions and speaking in a plain, conversational manner. However, this seeming plainness is all a part of the ironic characteristic of Socrates method. Professing his own ignorance, he engages in conversation with someone claiming to be an expert, usually in ethical matters. By asking simple questions, Socrates gradually reveals that his interlocutorRead MorePlato s Euthyphro And Apology893 Words   |  4 PagesPhilosophers are known to question, analyze and evaluate everything but do not always end with concrete conclusions. Plato’s Euthyphro and Apology, to no surprise, highlight one of such debate: the human characteristics of wisdom. Though Plato was one of the earliest philosophers, the topic of wisdom is still debated by modern philosophers today, contemplating questions such as â€Å"What are the classifications of ‘wisdom’?† According to Plato’s two dialogues, the characteristics of wisdom have a strongRead MorePlatos Philosophy in Apology1375 Words   |  6 PagesPHL202H5 Plato s Philosophy in Apology Plato was known to be one of Socrates students, and knew him for over 40 years. Although Plato s version of Apology is popularly believed to be (the most accurate) historical recount of what happened in 399 B.C on the day of Socrates trial, historians cannot be sure the validity of everything he wrote. It can be argued that it is actually a philosophical work, remarking on the teachings of Socrates and his beliefs, which he stood by even until hisRead MoreApologies Are The New Teachers971 Words   |  4 PagesApologies Are the New Teachers (Three things Learned from Plato’s Apology) There are many writers, authors, and speakers in this world that are considered among the greats, but perhaps the greatest two of western speculation are Plato and Socrates. These two hand in hand had a huge influence on American Literature and others as well. Perhaps one of the most remarkable writings of Plato, since Socrates never once himself wrote anything down, is his writing of Apology. The writings of Apology showedRead MoreSocrates : The Suicide Of Socrates1405 Words   |  6 PagesSocrates was born in 470 BCE in Athens, Greece. His father was Sophroniscus, a sculptor and stone mason from Athens and his mother was a midwife by the name of Phaenarete (30 Interesting Socrates Facts 2014). Socrates original profession was masonry and sculpting, before becoming a philosopher. On a day in 399 BC, Socrates ( roughly 71 years at the time) went to trial.Now why would anyone want to send an old man to court? Three answer is that Socrates was accused of refusing to recognize theRead MoreAnalysis Of Plato s The Ring Of Gyges 1510 Words   |  7 Pagesif you had a magic ring like the ring of Gyges (Republic, 359d)? Why be just or moral? Develop the complete answer of Socrates in Plato s Republic, through 449a. Then consider whether Plato s Socrates in The Apology would answer in a way that was any different, in substance or in tone. Your own opinion is worth a page of so, but focus on the argument of Plato s Socrates. When Glaucon attempts to argue that no difference exists between the just and unjust man, he tells the tale of the RingRead MoreApology On Apology Of Socrates852 Words   |  4 PagesMarch 2, 2017 Apology of Socrates Socrates was a Greek philosopher and the founder of western philosophy. Plato was the student of Socrates who was very motivated by the life and teaching of Socrates. Plato was also one of the greatest Philosopher of ancient Greece. Apology is the actual recorded speech of Socrates by Plato, which was delivered at the trail to defend himself. Many people did not agree with Socrates, so they made several charges against him, which is recorded in the Apology. Some ofRead MorePlato, An Ancient Greek Philosopher1458 Words   |  6 Pages Plato, an Ancient Greek Philosopher by Carly Rittenmeyer Bible and the Ancient World Spring 2015 Plato, a Greek Philosopher, is known for his writings that impacted people in the Ancient Greek society. He was a free thinker and lived in a free city, Athens. He was taught by multiple teachers including Socrates who was frequently mentioned in his writings as the central character. Plato’s novel, The Republic, influenced the idea of government and showsRead MoreSocrates : Not Guilty1610 Words   |  7 PagesSocrates: Not Guilty Intro (138) In 399 BC, when he was seventy years old, Socrates was called into court by three men: Meletus, a poet, Anytus, a politician, and Lycon, an orator. The specific charges were impiety (namely that he did not believe in the gods of Athens, and instead had introduced new gods), and corruption of the youth of the city. The account of Socrates’ trial is preserved in the Apology by Plato, a dialogue that ought not to be considered a verbatim report of Socrates’ defense

Child Abuse A Social Problem - Free Essay Example

Sample details Pages: 7 Words: 2036 Downloads: 1 Date added: 2019/04/08 Category Society Essay Level High school Tags: Child Abuse Essay Did you like this example? What is a social problem and how does one define it? According to author Robert Lauer, a social problem is defined as, a condition or pattern of behavior that contradicts some other condition or pattern of behavior; is defined as incompatible with the deserved quality of life; is caused, facilitated, or prolonged by social factors. Most times when looking at a social problem, we look at problems outside our homes when in reality we can encounter social problems under our own roof. I feel as though child abuse should be considered a social problem as it affects millions of children and society as a whole. Don’t waste time! Our writers will create an original "Child Abuse: A Social Problem" essay for you Create order Although this is a major issue, often times it is dismissed or not seen as a big problem by society or even the government. Child abuse is a major issue as children make our tomorrow, if children are being affected from a young age, they are likely to be affected when they are adults and that is not good for them nor society. Child abuse is a recurring issue in America and something jurassic needs to be done to eradicate this problem. In a recent journal titled, Child Abuse and Neglect/A Multidimensional Approach by Alexander Muela, he historically defines child abuse as,â€Å"all actions carried out by caregivers, which significantly interfere in the child’s optimum development and do not adhere to social standards, including things like emotional deprivation, malnutrition, child neglect and physical and emotional abandonment.† This definition touches on everything that shapes why child abuse should be defined as a social problem and not seen as a personal one. Children are the future and imagine if every child in the world were being abused? We would no longer have bright minds shaping the world, inventing new technology, coming up with different ideas to make the world a better place and most of all, we would have a lower population due to some cases leading to fatality. The issue of child abuse is a social problem, and we as a society need to find a solution. When looking at a social problem, one must first look at the who the issue affects and how they are affected. According to childtrends.org the number of child maltreatment cases/victims have risen from a whopping 860,000 to 1,032,000 over the past few years with the ratio of fifteen incidents to every one thousand children. The first figure alone was saddening but to know that cases have increased by such a disgusting amount should alert us all that there is an issue. Within all these cases, it is reported that younger children experience higher rates of abuse than older children. Statistics from Child Trends also reported that that children three and younger experienced more mistreatment and child abuse as compared to those who were older. Looking at this statistic, one could guess that this is because younger children cannot really do much about situations they are in. They cannot call and ask for help or really verbalize what is going on in their homes as compared to older children and this is in fact, very sad. As far as ethnicity goes it was also reported that Non-Hispanic Black children we amongst one of the most reported for child abuse and mistreatment in America. As a black woman, who was once a little black girl I am very disheartened by this. It is sad to know that children in the America are in danger and are being abused, with sometimes little to nothing being done over it. Where is the help for children three years old and younger who do not have a voice to cry out for help? The impact of child abuse is also important to look at when researching this, as people need to understand how what they’re doing is hurting these children. The impact of child abuse does not only include one thing, rather several. When a child has been abused, they are prone to physical/medical, mental, psychological, sociological and developmental issues. Physical abuse, according to Laurer can include, kicking, biting, choking and beating by parents, with a high risk of physical injury and possible disability as a result. Initially when a child is first abused, they feel immense pain almost immediately, suffering from results of previous beatings. In most cases children can suffer from injuries and in worst cases? death. If the child abuse is continuous and prolonged, it could lead to serious consequences for the child. Those were some short term effects of physical abuse, but the long term effects if the child is to survive, are far worse. Some possible long time effects of physical abuse are effects to mental health, lower self esteem, substance abuse (both drugs and alcohol) and a potential to be abusive to your own child as a pare nt. Physical abuse that starts early can affect a child years down the line when they are adults. We should see this as not just a problem, but a social problem because we are bringing these damaged people and adding them to our society. The psychological consequences are just as important to understand as the general effect of physical abuse. When children experience any form of mistreatment or neglect, they become at risk of developing mental illnesses such as anxiety, depression or even personality disorders. In a recent article published by childwelfare.gov, it was stated that over 54% of depression and attempted suicide cases in women were connected to their childhood experiences and negative events they endured in that childhood. Behavioral consequences are likely to also appear when children go through abuse. These children are more likely to have a difficult childhood as they can either keep to themselves or act out due to dealing with this mistreatment at home. These children are deprived of a childhood because they are constantly being abused and then develop a list of things even after the abuse has finished taken place. These things do not only impact these children, but also us citizens. We are the ones that have to be amongst these damaged kids, we are the ones that have to live amongst them and wonder what must have happened for them to be acting in such ways. Also, it affects our pockets as a society as well. We fund these different programs because there will be an increase in health care, juvenile detention centers for when the children act out, mental institutions for those admitted, substance abuse clinics and domestic violence centers. We indirectly fund all of these organizations because there is child abuse and something needs to be done to keep up with these programs. Most people hate the idea of an increase in anything where more money is being taken from them, so in order to stop this, we must come up with solutions that will put an end to this. With every change that needs to be made, I always say we must start with yourself. I feel as though there are two ways to look at this. One way to stop those abusing these children is to help/convict them and the other is to help kids that have been abused as best as we can. For instance, for those doing the abusing, it should be a societal standard to know when someone showcases traits of an abuser and to say something to a higher up. When that is done, said abuser should be further looked into, especially if they have a family, so abuse within the family can be eliminated. Often times, people feel too proud of seeking help for their issues but in a situation like this, help would be needed. For this action to be done, we must become more aware with traits of abusers. Teachers/professors should be making statements in classrooms about reporting abuse within families and let people know where to go for more information. For those who are not in school, I feel as though the media shou ld be utilized and more commercials should be placed on tv screens with information on abuse and where to go to learn more about it. As for the stoppage of abuse on victims and helping them, I researched thoroughly on what could be implemented to help them. In a Social Work Today article by Kimberly Day, there were a list of doable actions that can be implemented by organizations and the government that would prevent continuous child abuse and even worse, death because of child abuse. Some of these doable actions included expanding prevention services for at-risk families, the increase in qualifications of child protection workers, increase funding for child protective service and most importantly changes in confidentiality laws associated with child abuse. I feel as though these were all important actions that could actually make a change if implemented and funded by the government. If there was an expansion in prevention services that would mean more families would be educated on how to prevent child abuse from occurring, furthering eliminating the step of having events occur to an innocent child. This needs to occur on a national level as this issue is very serious and not something small. These are the lives of children and they matter. I also thought that the increase in funding for child protective services would do a lot for this social problem. With increase in funding from the government, more workers could be hired, meaning more children can be helped as more homes would be evaluated. Ideally, there would be enough funding to get well qualified, experiences people out on the field to make sure that these children were being placed in a safe location and ridden from any kind of abuse. Lastly, it would be very important for there to be changes made in the confidentiality laws associated with child abuse. This would do a lot for this social problem as more people would be able to come out and report any kind of abuse they see or hear from students. These actions can only be implemented if this issue is on a national level and there is a severity seen with child abuse as there is one with other social problems. To reiterate my earlier statement, child abuse is a social problem that must be eradicated as it not only affects the lives of the children, but society as a whole. There are hundreds of thousands of reported cases of child abuse in America and those are only the ones that are accounted for. Younger children are much more likely to be abused and that is disheartening because they can absolutely do nothing. When abused, children are more likely to be depressed, anxiety ridden, hesitant to form new relations, act out or become an abuser themselves. We as a society need to understand we can do something to change the cycle of damaged growing kids who reciprocate the treatment they received to their kids and so on. This cycle will never be broken as long as we sit back and do nothing. This social problem needs to be recognized as a national problem and the government needs to implement actions such as increasing funding, changing qualifications of child protective services and changing l aws of confidentiality when it comes to child abuse. These actions cannot happen over night as they will be a working progress, but we all need to band together to make this change. Children are our future, abuse is our current problem and needs to become a problem of the past. Work Cited Child Maltreatment. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://www.childtrends.org/indicators/child-maltreatment Child Welfare Information Gateway. (2013). Long-term consequences of child abuse and neglect. Washington, DC: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Children’s Bureau. Day, K., MSW. (n.d.). What Will It Take to End Child Abuse Fatalities in the United States? Retrieved from https://www.socialworktoday.com/archive/exc_042911.shtml Effects of child physical abuse. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://www.secasa.com.au/pages/child-physical-abuse-understanding-and-responding/effects-of-child-physical-abuse/ Lauer, R. H., Lauer, J. C. (2013). Social problems and the Quality of Life. New York: McGraw-Hill Education. Muela, A. (2012). Interaction Design for Preventing Child Abuse. Child Abuse and Neglect A Multidimensional Approach. doi:10.5772/48130

8 Famous Mexican Revolutionaries

A New Real Estate Investment Trust, By Michael J. De La...

Microeconomics Essay In the following articles there is talk about different economic situations. For example there is talk about the high demand of jobs, while there are many potential employees and how that affects the wage not growing. Also talk about change in Demand with references to expanding to an international market as a way to increase sales in a way other than price change and how this would cause a right shift in the demand curve. â€Å"Sears Weighs a New Unit to Hold Some of Its Real Estate†, by MICHAEL J. DE LA MERCED (New York Times NOVEMBER 7, 2014) Summary In an effort to raise cash to offset a steady stream of losses sears chief executive Edward S Lambert unveiled an unusual financial maneuver that it may employ: selling some of its stores to a new real estate investment trust. Sears disclosed that its comparable sales for its domestic locations in the 39 weeks that ended Nov. 1 were roughly flat, while those at its Kmart stores were down 1.2 percent. Perhaps more troubling, the company added that it could lose up to $630 million in the quarter ended Nov. 1. Putting most of the company’s real estate in a separate entity ultimately raises questions about what Mr. Lampert will do with the company. (As the company’s biggest shareholder, with a roughly 48.5 percent stake, he would most likely own about the same percentage of the investment trust.) Though selling the stores to the REIT would generate much-needed cash and assuage any vendors nervous about beingShow MoreRelatedAlibaba5915 Words   |  24 Pages in case someon e wants to marry us![17][18] Brick and mortar stores[edit] According to Li Chuan, a senior executive at Alibaba, the company was planning in 2013 to open traditional brick and mortar retail outlets in partnership with Chinese real estate companyDalian Wanda Group.[19]  Additionally, Alibaba purchased a 25% stake in Hong Kong-based Intime Retail in early 2014.[20] IPO[edit] On 5 September 2014, the group—in a regulatory filing with the  US Securities and Exchange Commission—set a  US$60-Read More_x000C_Introduction to Statistics and Data Analysis355457 Words   |  1422 PagesEdition: ISBN-13: 978-0-495-11873-2 ISBN-10: 0-495-11873-7 ââ€"   To my nephews, Jesse and Luke Smidt, who bet I wouldn’t put their names in this book. R. P. ââ€"   To my wife, Sally, and my daughter, Anna C. O. ââ€"   To Carol, Allie, and Teri. J. D. ââ€"   About the Authors puter Teacher of the Year award in 1988 and received the Siemens Award for Advanced Placement in mathematics in 1999. Chris is a frequent contributor to the AP Statistics Electronic Discussion Group and has reviewed materials

Sample Questions Free Essays

Chapter-1 MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS Multiple Choice Questions 1 Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market? a. Firms are price setters. b. We will write a custom essay sample on Sample Questions or any similar topic only for you Order Now There are few sellers in the market. c. Firms can exit and enter the market freely. d. All of these 2 If a perfectly competitive firm currently produces where price is greater than marginal cost it a. will increase its profits by producing more. b. will increase its profits by producing less. c. is making positive economic profits. d. is making negative economic profits. 3 When a perfectly competitive firm makes a decision to shut down, it is most likely that a. Price is below the minimum of average variable cost. b. Fixed costs exceed variable costs. c. Average fixed costs are rising. d. Marginal cost is above average variable cost. 4 In the long run, a profit-maximizing firm will choose to exit a market when a. Fixed costs exceed sunk costs. b. Average fixed cost is rising. c. Revenue from production is less than total costs. d. marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue at the current level of production. 5 When firms have an incentive to exit a competitive market, their exit will a. Drive down market prices. b. Drive down profits of existing firms in the market. . Decrease the quantity of goods supplied in the market. d. All of the above are correct. 6 In a perfectly competitive market, the process of entry or exit ends when a. Firms are operating with excess capacity. b. Firms are making zero economic profit. c. Firms experience decreasing marginal revenue. d. Price is equal to marginal cost. 7 Equilibrium quantities in markets characterize d by oligopoly is a. Lower than in monopoly markets and higher than in perfectly competitive markets. b. Lower than in monopoly markets and lower than in perfectly competitive markets. Higher than in monopoly markets and higher than in perfectly competitive markets. d. Higher than in monopoly markets and lower than in perfectly competitive markets. 8 In economics the central problem is: a. b. c. d. e. Allocation. Consumption. Scarcity. Money. Production. c. 9 Indicate below what is NOT a factor of production. a. Land. b. A bank loan. c. Labor. d. Capital. 10 Macroeconomics deals with: a. The behavior of firms. b. Economic aggregates. c. The activities of individual units. d. The behavior of the electronics industry. 11 Microeconomics is not concerned with the behavior of: a. Aggregate demand. . Consumers. c. Industries. d. Firms. 12 The study of inflation is part of: a. Normative economics. b. Macroeconomics. c. Microeconomics. d. Descriptive economics. 13 Aggregate supplies is the total amount: a. Produced by the government. b. Of products produced by a given industry. c. Of labor supplied by all households. d. Of goods and services produced in an economy. 14 The total demand for goods and services in an economy is known as: a. National demand. b. Economy-wide demand. c. Gross national product. d. Aggregate demand. 15 If marginal benefit is greater than marginal cost, a rational choice involves: a. More of the activity. b. Less of the activity. c. No more of the activity. d. More or less, depending on the benefits of other activities. 16 A student chooses to study because the marginal benefit is greater than the ________ cost. a. average b. total c. marginal d. expected 17 Periods of less than full employment correspond to: a. b. c. d. Points outside the production possibility curve. Points inside the production possibility curve. Points on the production possibility curve. Either points inside or outside the production possibility curve. 18 The circular flow of goods and incomes shows the relationship between: a. Income and money. b. Wages and salaries. c. Goods and services. d. Firms and households. 19 In a free market system, the amount of goods and services that any one household gets depends upon its: a. Income. b. Wage and interest income. c. Wealth. d. Income and wealth. 20 In a planned or command economy, all the economic decisions are taken by the: a. Consumers. b. Workers. c. Government. d. Voters. Answers for Multiple Choice Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (c) 11(a) 12(b) 13(d) 16(c) 17(b) 18(d) 4 (c) 9 (b) 14(d) 19(d) 5 (c) 10 (b) 15(a) 20(c) Chapter-2 PRINCIPLES OF MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS Multiple Choice Questions 1 The word that comes from the Greek word for â€Å"one who manages a household is a. Market. b. Consumer. c. Producer. d. Economy. 2 Economics deals primarily with the concept of a. Scarcity. b. Poverty. c. Change. d. Power. 3 Which of the following is NOT included in the decisions that every society must make? a. what goods will be produced b. who will produce goods c. what determines consumer preferences d. who will consume the goods 4 In a market economy, characterized by Capitalism, there is full interference by the State in the economic activities of consumers and producers. a)True (b) False 5 In a market system of economy, there is no harmony between individual interests and interests of the community. (a)True (b) False 6 Efficiency is the relation between returns and cost. (a)True (b) False 7 The subject matter of macro –economic includes the theory of income and employment at an individual level. (a)True (b) False 8 Rational decision results in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦for the employees. a. Division of work. b. Centralization. c. Discipline. d. Motivation 9 A Theory Y approach is more suitable where a job offers: a. a high degree of intrinsic satisfaction. b. The ability to exercise initiative. c. An element of problem solving. d. All of the above. 10 Breech identifies four main elements of management. They are planning, control, coordination and: a. The division of work. b. Centralization. c. Discipline. d. Motivation. 11 Many well-known business economists participate in public debates. (a)True (b) False 12 Marginal Utility is the utility derived from the additional unit of a commodity consumed. (a)True (b) False 13 Compared to the static model, the fishing effort in a dynamic model is likely to be a. Larger. b. Smaller. c. Similar. . Larger or smaller. 14 Land, labor, and money are the three categories of economic resources. (a)True (b) False 15 Which of the following is not an interest rate derivative used for interest rate management? Interest rate guarantee a. Floor b. Swap c. Cap d. All of the above are interest rate derivatives 16 An agreement which guarantees an investor a minimum return on a principal amount is called a: a. Cap b. Executive stock option c. Stock option d. Floor 17 Which of the factors listed below is not a reason for decision making in organizations being a complex process? a. Modern information systems enable people to evaluate a range of possible outcomes b. Factors in the current context of the organization affect the decision c. Several stakeholders will have an interest in the decision d. People have to make decisions in a historical context 18 The overall process of decision making in, for example, staff selection includes which of these stages? a. Deciding which candidate to appoint b. Identifying the need for a new member of staff c. Agreeing the job specification d. All of the above 19 A manager who is helping a customer return some shoes they purchased last week is dealing with what type of decision? . Uncertainty b. Non-programmed decision c. Bounded rationality d. Programmed decision 20 Decision making situations can be categorized along a scale which ranges from: a. Uncertainty to certainty to risk b. Certainty to uncertainty to risk c. Certainty to risk to uncertainty d. Certainty to risk to uncertainty to ambiguity Answers for Multiple Choic e Questions 1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (c) 6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(d) 17(a) 18(d) 4 (b) 9 (d) 14(b) 19(d) 5 (b) 10 (d) 15(d) 20(d) Chapter-3 CONCEPT OF DEMAND Multiple Choice Questions 1 The quantity demanded of Pepsi has decreased. The best explanation for this is that: a. The price of Pepsi increased. b. Pepsi consumers had an increase in income. c. Pepsi’s advertising is not as effective as in the past. d. The price of Coca Cola has increased. 2 Demand curves are derived while holding constant: a. Income, tastes, and the price of other goods. b. Tastes and the price of other goods. c. Income and tastes. d. Income, tastes, and the price of the good. 3 When the decrease in the price of one good causes the demand for another good to decrease, the goods are: a. Normal b. Inferior c. Substitutes d. Complements 4 Suppose the demand for good Z goes up when the price of good Y goes down. We can say that goods Z and Y are: a. Substitutes. b. Complements. c. Unrelated goods. d. Perfect substitutes. 5 If the demand for coffee decreases as income decreases, coffee is: a. An inferior good. b. A normal good. c. A complementary good. d. A substitute good. 6 Which of the following will NOT cause a shift in the demand curve for compact discs? a. A change in the price of pre-recorded cassette tapes. b. A change in income. c. A change in the price of compact discs. d. A change in wealth. When excess demand occurs in an unregulated market, there is a tendency for: a. Quantity supplied to decrease. b. Quantity demanded to increase. c. Price to rise. d. Price to fall. 8 Market equilibrium exists when _____________ at the prevailing price. a. b. c. d. quantity demanded is less than quantity supplied quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded quantity demanded equals quantity supplied qu antity demanded is greater than quantity supplied 9 A movement along the demand curve to the left may be caused by: a. A decrease in supply. b. A rise in the price of inputs. c. A fall in the number of substitute goods. d. A rise in income. 10 The quantity demanded of a product rises whenever (a) The product’s price falls. (b) Incomes increase. (c) Population increases. (d) The prices of substitute goods rise. (e) Consumer tastes and preferences change. 11 The equilibrium quantity must fall when (a) There is a decrease in demand. (b) There is a decrease in supply. (c) There is an increase in price. (d) There is an increase in demand and supply. (e) There is a decrease in demand and supply 12 The demand curve will shift to the left for most consumer goods when (a) Incomes decrease. b) The prices of substitutes fall. (c) The prices of complements increase (d) All of the above. 13 Producer goods, also called intermediate goods, in economics, goods manufactured and used in further manufacturing, processing, or resale. (a)True (b) False 14 Consumer goods are alternately called final goods, and the second term makes more sense in understanding the concept. (a)True (b) False 15 GDP stands for a. Gross Domestic Product b. Gross Deistic Product c. Gross dynamic product d. All of these 16 GNP stands for a. Gross national product b. Gross natural product c. Both (a)and (b) d. None of these 17 When the demand for a product is tied to the purchase of some parent product, its demand is called induced or derived. (a)True (b) False 18 An industry is the aggregate of firms (a)True (b) False 19 The ‘law of demand’ implies that: a. As prices fall, quantity demanded increases. b. As prices rise, quantity demanded increases. c. As prices fall, demand increases. d. As prices rise, demand decreases. 20 When the market operates without interference, price increases will distribute what is available to those who are willing and able to pay the most. This process is known as: a. Price rationing. . Price fixing. c. Quantity adjustment. d. Quantity setting Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (c) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (c) 11(d) 12(d) 13(a) 16(a) 17(a) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(a) 19(a) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(a) 20(a) Chapter-4 DETERMINATION OF DEMAND 1 The demand for a product or a service depends on a host of factors. (a)True (b) False 2 Demand curves may also be shifted by changes in expectations. (a)True (b) False 3 Quantity demand is a specific quantity that buyers are willing and able to buy at a specific demand price. (a)True (b) False 4 If the price of a complement increases, all else equal, a. Quantity demanded will increase. b. Quantity supplied will increase. c. Demand will increase. d. Demand will decrease. 5 Which of the following would lead to an INCREASE in the demand for golf balls? a. An decrease in the price of golf balls. b. An increase in the price of golf clubs. c. A decrease in the cost of producing golf balls. d. An increase in average household income when golf balls are a normal good. 6 If input prices increase, all else equal, a. Quantity supplied will decrease. b. Supply will increase. c. Supply will decrease. d. Demand will decrease. 7 Which of the following would decrease the supply of wheat? . A decrease in the price of pesticides. b. An increase in the demand for wheat. c. A rise in the price of wheat. d. An increase in the price of corn. 8 When Sonoma Vineyards increases the price of its Chardonnay from $15 per bottle to $20 per bottle, the result is a decrease in†¦ a. The quantity of this wine demanded. b. The quantity of this wine supplied. c. The demand for this wine. d. The supply of this wine. 9 Which of the following will cause a change in quantity supplied? a. Technological change. b. A change in input prices. c. A change in the market price of the good. d. A change in the number of firms in the market. 0 In which of the following cases will the effect on equilibrium output be indeterminate (i. e. , depend on the magnitudes of the shifts in supply and demand)? a. Demand decreases and supply decreases. b. Demand remains constant and supply increases. c. Demand decreases and supply increases. d. Demand increases and supply increases. 11 An increase in the number of firms selling pizza will cause, ceteris paribus, (a) an increase in supply. (b) an increase in demand. (c) a decrease in quantity demanded. (d) a decrease in the quantity supplied. 12 A change in demand is a change in the ENTIRE demand relation. a)True (b) False 13 The demand for a given product will rise if: a. Incomes rise for a normal good or fall for an inferior good b. The price of a complement falls c. The price of a substitute rises d. All of these 14 Two explanations for the law of demand are (a) Price and quantity effects. (b) Substitution and income effects. (c) Opportunity cost and substitution effects. (d) Substitutes and inferior goods. (e) None of the above. 15 An increase in demand, ceteris paribus, will usually cause (a) A decrease in quantity demanded. (b) an increase in quantity supplied. (c) an increase in supply. d) a higher quantity and a lower price. 16. The quantity demanded of a product rises whenever (a) the product’s price falls. (b) incomes increase. (c) population increases. (d) the prices of substitute goods rise 17 The demand curve is downward-sloping because at a higher price for a good (ceteris paribus) (a) people buy fewer substitutes. (b) people buy more complements. (c) people search for substitutes. (d) income rises. (e) substitutes become complements. 18 The supply curve is upward-sloping be cause at higher prices for a good (a) consumers search out more substitutes. (b) consumer income increases. c) demand is lower. (d) None of the above. 19 If the factors held constant along a supply or demand curve change, (a) the equilibrium may change. (b) the demand and supply equilibrium may be disrupted. (c) the supply or demand curve may shift. (d) All of the above. 20 If the price of crackers goes up when the price of cheese goes down, crackers and cheese are (a) inferior goods. (b) substitutes. (c) both substitutes and complements. (d) complements Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(d) 16(a) 17(c) 18(d) 4 (d) 9 (c) 14(b) 19(a) 5 (d) 10 (c) 15(b) 20(d) Chapter-5 PRICE ELASTICITY OF DEMAND 1 If the price elasticity of demand for a good is . 75, the demand for the good can be described as: a. normal b. elastic c. inferior d. inelastic. 2. When the price of a product is increased 10 percent, the quantity demanded decreases 15 percent. In this range of prices, demand for this product is: a. elastic b. inelastic c. cross-elastic. d. unitary elastic. 3. If the price elasticity of demand for a product is equal to 0. 5, then a 10 percent decrease in price will: a. increase quantity demanded by 5 percent. b. increase quantity demanded by 0. percent. c. decrease quantity demanded by 5 percent. d. decrease quantity demanded by 0. 5 percent. 4 If an increase in the supply of a product results in a decrease in the price, but no change in the actual quantity of the product exchanged, then: a. the price elasticity of supply is zero. b. the price elasticity of supply is infinite. c. the price elasticity of demand is unitary. d. the price elasticit y of demand is zero. 5. If 100 units of product K are sold at a unit price of $10 and 75 units of product K are sold at a unit price of $15, one can conclude that in this price range: a. emand for product K is elastic. b. demand for product K is inelastic. c. demand for product K has shifted to the right. d. consumers are sensitive to price changes of product K. 6 Total revenue falls as the price of a good increases if price ela sticity of demand is: a. elastic. b. inelastic c. unitary elastic d. perfectly elastic. 7 The demand for Cheerios cereal is more price-elastic than the demand for cereals as a whole. This is best explained by the fact that: a. Cheerios are a luxury. b. cereals are a necessity. c. there are more substitutes for Cheerios than for cereals as a whole. d. onsumption of cereals as a whole is greater than consumption of Cheerios. 8 What is the most likely effect of the development of television, videocassette players, and rental movies on the movie theater industry ? a. b. c. d. decreased costs of producing movies increased demand for movie theater tickets movie theater tickets become an inferior good increased price elasticity of demand for movie theater tickets 9 The price elasticity of demand will increase with the length of the period to which the demand curve pertains because: a. consumers’ incomes will increase. b. the demand curve will shift outward. . all prices will increase over time. d. consumers will be better able to find substitutes. 10. A state government wants to increase the taxes on cigarettes to increase tax revenue. (a)True (b) False 11 This tax would only be effective in raising new tax revenues if the price elasticity of demand is: a. unity b. elastic c. inelastic d. perfectly elastic. 12. Sony is considering a 10 percent price reduction on its color television sets. If the demand for sets in this price range is inelastic: A) revenues from color sets will remain constant. B) revenues derived from color sets will de crease. C) revenues derived from color sets will increase. D) the number of television sets sold will decrease 13 Elasticity of demand for a commodity with respect to change in its price. (a)True (b) False 14 An elasticity alternative in which infinitesimally small changes in price cause infinitely large changes in quantity. (a)True (b) False 15 Three factors that affect the numerical value of the price elasticity of demand are the a. b. c. d. availability of substitutes time period of analysis proportion of budget All of these 16 The price elasticity of demand is one of four common elasticity’s used in the analysis of the market. a)True (b) False 17 Cross elasticity of demand is: a. negative for complementary goods b. unitary for inferior goods. c. negative for substitute goods d. positive for inferior goods. 18. A positive cross elasticity of demand coefficient indicates that: a. a product is an inferior good. b. a product is a normal good. c. two products are substitute goods. d. t wo products are complementary goods. 19 A market without legal prices is in equilibrium when: a. quantity demanded equals price. b. the demand curve remains constant. c. quantity demanded equals quantity supplied. d. uantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied. 20 A relatively small change, say 1% on an INR 100,000 house, can make a BIG difference in the buyer’s decision to buy. (a)True (b) False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (a) 11(d) 12(c) 13(a) 14(a) 15(d) 16(a) 17(a) 18(c) 19(c) 20(a) Chapter-6 TYPES OF ELASTICITIES OF DEMAND 1 If it is observed that, in a particular market, price has risen and quantity exchanged has increased, it is likely that: a. supply has increased. b. supply has decreased. c. demand has increased. d. emand has decreased. 2 The quantity of a good demanded rises from 1000 to 1500 units when the price falls from $1. 50 to $1. 00 per unit. The price elasticity of demand for this pro duct is approximately: a. 1. 0 b. 16 c. 2. 5 d. 4. 0 3 If the elasticity of demand for a commodity is estimated to be 1. 5, then a decrease in price from $2. 10 to $1. 90 would be expected to increase daily sales by: a. 50% b. 1. 5% c. 5% d. 15% 4 A long-run demand curve, as compared to a short-run demand curve for the same commodity, is generally: a. more elastic b. less elastic c. of the same elasticity d. none of the above. The price elasticity of demand is 5. 0 if a 10 percent increase in the price results in a a. 2%decrease in quantity demanded. b. 5%decrease in quantity demanded. c. 10% decrease in quantity demanded d. 50% decrease in quantity demanded. 6 Demand for a good will likely be more elastic, a. The higher the level of income. b. The larger the proportion of monthly income spent on it. c. The fewer the good substitutes available. d. The higher the price of complementary goods. 7 Demand will be more elastic, a. The higher the income. b. The lower the price. c. The shor ter the passage of time after a permanent price increase. . The more substitutes available for the good. 8 The price elasticity of demand measures the sensitivity of demand to price changes. (a)True (b) False 9 If a good has no close substitutes and is regarded as a necessity by many consumers, then demand for the good will be quite elastic. (a)True (b) False 10 Cross elasticity of demand is the ratio of the percentage change in demand for a good to the percentage change in price for another. (a)True (b) False 11 A 50 percent increase in price that results in a 90 percent decrease in the quantity demanded indicates that demand is elastic in this price range. a)True (b)False 12 Demands for most goods tend to become more elastic with the passage of time. (a)True (b) False 13 If two goods are substitutes, then an increase in the price of one good will leads to an increase in the demand for the other good. (a)True (b) False 14 If two goods are complements, then a decrease in the price o f one good will results in a decrease in the demand of the other good. (a)True (b) False 15 The price elasticity of demand is the same as the slope of the demand curve. (a)True (b) False 16 If demand is price elastic, then: a. a rise in price will raise total revenue. b. a fall in price will raise total revenue. . a fall in price will lower the quantity demanded. d. a rise in price won’t have any effect on total revenues. 17 Complementary goods have: a. The same elasticity’s of demand. b. very low price elasticity of demand. c. negative cross price elasticity of demand with respect to each other. d. positive income elasticity of demand. 18 The price elasticity of demand generally tends to be: a. smaller in the long run than in the short run. b. smaller in the short run than in the long run. c. larger in the short run than in the long run. d. unrelated to the length of time. 19 If the price elasticity of supply of doodads is 0. 0 and the price increases by 3 percent, th en the quantity supplied of doodads will rise by a. 0. 60 percent. b. 0. 20 percent c. 1. 8 percent d. 18 percent. 20 If the cross-price elasticity between two commodities is 1. 5, a. The two goods are luxury goods. b. The two goods are complements. c. The two goods are substitutes. d. The two goods are normal goods. Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(b) 17(c) 18(b) 4 (a) 9 (b) 14(b) 19(c) 5 (d) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(c) Chapter-7 SUPPLY ANALYSIS 1 The cost of factor inputs like land, labor, and capital has a major influence on supply. a)True (b) False 2 Which of the following factors will make the demand for a product more elastic? (Assume the product has a straight-line, downward sloping demand. ) a. The product has no close substitutes. b. A very small proportion of income is spent on the good. c. A long time period has elapsed since the product’s price changed. d. A lower price 3 For a given normal supply curve, the amo unt of a tax paid by the buyer will be larger a. the more elastic the demand. b. the more inelastic the demand. c. the income elasticity is equal to zero d. when the price is high. With a perfectly elastic demand and a normal supply (upward-slopping) a. consumers will bear the entire tax burden. b. consumers will not bear any tax burden. c. consumers and producer will split the tax burden in half. d. producers will not bear any tax burden. 5 Which of the following leads to the producers paying all of a tax? a. The supply is perfectly elastic. b. The supply is perfectly inelastic. c. The demand is unit elastic. d. The demand is perfectly inelastic. 6 The incidence (split) of sales tax is determined by the a. level of government which imposes the tax. b. federal government in all cases. c. greed of the seller. d. rice elasticity of supply and demand. 7 The market supply curve is the horizontal sum of the individual supply curve. (a)True (b) False 8 Supply determinants are five ceteris paribus factors that are held constant when a supply curve is constructed. (a)True (b) False 9 Supply is the willingness and ability of producers to make a specific quantity of output available to consumers at a particular price over a given period of time. (a)True (b) False 10 Individuals supply factors of production to firms. (a)True (b) False 11 The supply curve for tomatoes is not thus more elastic in the short run than in the momentary period. (a)True (b)False 2 Macroeconomic studies are based on empirical evidence. (a)True (b)False 13 Demand curve slopes upwards from left to right. (a) True (b)False 14 In the market, anyone who agrees to pay the requisite price of a product would be excluded from their consumption. (a) True (b)False 15 Aglets are the metal or plastic tips on shoelaces that make it easier to lace your shoes. The demand for aglets is probably a. perfectly elastic. b. inelastic. c. elastic but not perfectly elastic. d. unit elastic. 16 The cross elasticity of de mand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a particular good to changes in the prices of a. Its complements but not its substitutes. b. its substitutes but not its complements. c. its substitutes and its complements d. neither its substitutes nor its complements. 17 If goods are complements, definitely their a. income elasticity’s are negative b. income elasticity’s are positive. c. cross elasticity’s are positive. d. cross elasticity’s are negative. 18 If a rise in the price of good 1 decreases the quantity of good 2 demanded, a. the cross elasticity of demand is negative b. good 1 is an inferior good. c. good 2 is an inferior good d. the cross elasticity of demand is positive. 9 The price elasticity of demand generally tends to be: a. smaller in the long run than in the short run. b. smaller in the short run than in the long run. c. larger in the short run than in the long run. d. unrelated to the length of time. 20 The demand for your services becomes more elastic. (a)True (b)False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (b) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (a) 11(b) 12(a) 13(b) 16(c) 17(d) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(b) 19(b) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(a) Chapter-8 PRODUCTION DECISION 1 Which of the following functions is not a core function of an organisation? a. The product/service development function b. The operations function c. The accounting and finance function d. The marketing (including sales) function 2 Most operations produce a mixture of both products and services. Which of the following businesses is closest to producing â€Å"pure† services? a. IT company b. A Restaurant c. Counsellor/therapist d. Steel company 3 Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high volume, low variety? a. A family doctor b. A carpenter c. A front office bank d. A fast food restaurant 4 Which of the following activities is not a direct responsibility of operations management? a. Designing the operation’s products, services and processes b. Planning and controlling the operation c. Developing an operations strategy for the operation d. Determining the exact mix of products and services that customers will want 5 Operations can be classified according to the degree of variation in demand and visibility of the operation as well as their volume and variety of production. Which of the following operations would be classified as high variation and high visibility? a. A front office bank b. A family doctor c. A fast food restaurant d. A carpenter 6 The production function incorporates the technically efficient method of †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. a. production. b. process c. function d. All of these 7 A fixed input is one whose quantity cannot be varied during the time under consideration. (a)True (b)False 8 Economists find it convenient to distinguish between the †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. and the long run. a. short run b. large run c. big run d. None of these 9 The law of variable proportions states that as the quantity of one factor is increased, keeping the other factors fixed, the marginal product of that factor will eventually decline. a)True (b)False 10 MRP stands for a. Marginal Revenue Product b. Marginal Revenue process c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these 11 The book value of old equipment is not a relevant cost in a decision. (a)True (b)False 12. One of the dangers of allocating common fixed costs to a product line is that such allocations can make the line appear less profitable than it really is. (a)True (b)False 13. A differential cost is a variable cost. (a)True (b)False 14. All future costs are relevant in decision making. (a)True (b)False 15. Variable costs are always relevant costs. (a)True (b)False 6 Only the variable costs identified with a product are relevant in a decision concerning whether to eliminate the product. (a)True (b)False 17 Managers should pay little attention to bottleneck operations because they have limited capacity for producing output. (a)True (b)False 18 A cost that does not affect a decision is called an a. opportunity cost b. incremental cost c. avoidable cost d. irrelevant cost 19. Costs that change between alternatives are called a. fixed costs. b. opportunity costs. c. crelevant costs. d. sunk costs. 20. A cost incurred in the past that cannot be changed by any future action is a(n) a. pportunity cost b. sunk cost c. relevant cost d. avoidable cost Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 ( c) 3 (d) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(a) 13(b) 16(b) 17(b) 18(d) 4 (d) 9 (a) 14(b) 19(c) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(b) Chapter-9 ISOQUANT AND PRODUCTION FUNCTION 1 Economists typically assume that the owners of firms wish to a. produce efficiently. b. maximize sales revenues. c. maximize profits. d. All of these. 2 Efficient production occurs if a firm a. cannot produce its current level of output with fewer inputs. b. given the quantity of inputs, cannot produce more output. c. maximizes profit. d. All of the above. Limited liability is a benefit to a. sole proprietorships. b. partnerships. c. corporations. d. all of the above. 4 Which of the following statements best describes a production function? a. the maximum profit generated from given levels of inputs b. the maximum level of output generated from given levels of inputs c. all levels of output that can be generated from given levels of inputs d. all levels of inputs that could produce a given level of output 5 With respect to produ ction, the short run is best defined as a time period a. lasting about six months. b. lasting about two years. c. in which all inputs are fixed. d. n which at least one input is fixed. 6 In the long run, all factors of production are a. variable. b. fixed. c. materials. d. rented. 7 The short-run production functions for Albert’s Pretzels. The marginal productivity of labor equals the average productivity of labor a. for all levels of labor. b. at none of the levels of labor. c. only for the first worker. d. only for the fifth worker. 8 the short-run production function for Albert’s Pretzels. The law of diminishing marginal productivity a. appears with the second worker. b. has not yet appeared for any of the levels of labor. c. first appears with the fifth worker. d. s refuted by this evidence. 9 If the average productivity of labor equals the marginal productivity of labor, then a. the average productivity of labor is at a maximum. b. the marginal productivity of lab or is at a maximum. c. Both A and B above. d. Neither A nor B above. 10 Average productivity will fall as long as a. marginal productivity is falling. b. it exceeds marginal productivity. c. it is less than marginal productivity. d. the number of workers is increasing. 11 Factors of production are a) inputs and outputs. b) outputs only c) inputs only d) the minimum set of inputs that can produce a certain fixed quantity of output. 2 The set of all pairs (z1, z2) of inputs that yield the output y is the y-is quant. (a)True (b)False 13 L-shaped isoquants imply that production requires that the inputs are perfect substitutes. a. are imperfect substitutes. b. cannot be used together. c. must be used together in a certain proportion. d. None of these 14 Isoquants that are downward-sloping straight lines imply that the inputs a. are perfect substitutes. b. are imperfect substitutes. c. cannot be used together. d. must be used together in a certain proportion. 15 Isoquants that are downwar d-sloping straight lines exhibit a. n increasing marginal rate of technical substitution. b. a decreasing marginal rate of technical substitution. c. a constant marginal rate of technical substitution. d. a marginal rate of technical substitution that cannot be determined. 16 The profit maximization firm will choose the least cost combination of factors to produce at any given level of output. (a)True (b) False 17 The production function is useful in deciding on the additional value of employing a variable input in the production process. (a)True (b) False 18 The additional use of an input factor should be stopped when its marginal revenue productivity just equals its price. a)True (b) False 19 The least cost combination of-factors or producer’s equilibrium is now explained with the help of †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. curves and iso costs. a. iso product b. iso process c. Both(a) and (b) d. None of these 20 MRTS stands for†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a. Marginal rate of technical stru cture b. Marginal rate of technical substitution c. Both(a) and (b) d. None of these Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (c) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (a) 11(c) 12(a) 13(c) 16(a) 17(a) 18(a) 4 (b) 9 (a) 14(a) 19(a) 5 (d) 10 (b) 15(c) 20(b) Chapter-10 THEORY OF COST 1 The cost of capital is critically important in finance. a)True (b)False An implicit cost is a. the cost of giving up an alternative b. the cost of a chosen alternative c. calculated by subtracting the monetary cost. d. none of the above 3 The historical cost of an asset refers to the actual cost incurred at the time the asset was acquired. (a)True (b) False 4 An Explicit cost is a business expense accounted cost that can be easily identified such as wage, rent and materials. (a)True (b) False 5 Private is the cost that has to be paid by an individual who is directly involved in the production or consumption of a particular good. a)True (b) False 6 Social cost or external cost is not the cost burden carried by indivi duals who are not directly involved in the production or consumption of that particular good (a)True (b) False 7 Average cost is the sum total of Average variable it and average fixed cost. (a)True (b) False 8 Cost-output relationship facilitates many managerial relationships such as: a. Formulating the standards of operations. b. Formulating the rational policy on plant size. c. Formulating a policy of profit prediction. d. All of these 9 Cost in the short-run can be classified into†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦and variable cost. a. fixed cost b. sset c. both (a) and (b) d. None of these 10 Total fixed costs remained fixed irrespective of increase or decrease in production of activity. (a)True (b) False 11 Marginal costs is the change in total cost resulting from unit change in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a. output b. input c. both(a) and (b) d. None of these 12 The †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. implies that the cost of production continues to be low till the firm reaches the optimum scale (Marginal cost = Av erage cost). a. V-shape b. Q-shape c. U-shape d. All of these 13 Scale economies and returns to scale generally produce a U-shaped long-run average cost curve, such as the one displayed to the right. a) True (b) False 14 __________ is concerned with the branch of economics relating the behavior of principals and their agents. a. Financial management b. Profit maximization c. Agency theory d. Social responsibility 15 A concept that implies that the firm should consider issues such as protecting the consumer, paying fair wages, maintaining fair hiring practices, supporting education, and considering environmental issues. a. Financial management b. Profit maximization c. Agency theory d. Social responsibility 16 Which of the following is not normally a responsibility of the treasurer of the modern corporation but rather the controller? . Budgets and forecasts b. Asset management c. Investment management d. Financing management 17 The __________ decision involves determining the appropr iate make-up of the righthand side of the balance sheet. a. asset management b. financing c. investment d. capital budgeting 18 A long-run is also expressed as a series of short-runs. (a)True (b)False 19 Which of the following are used in calculating opportunity costs? a. monetary costs b. the cost of time c. preference d. all of the above 20 An explicit cost is a. the cost of giving up an alternative b. the cost of a chosen alternative c. alculated by subtracting the monetary cost of an alternative by the time invested d. none of the above Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(c) 13(a) 16(a) 17(b) 18(a) 4 (a) 9 (a) 14(c) 19(d) 5 (a) 10 (a) 15(d) 20(b) Chapter-11 MARKET STRUCTURE, AND PRICING 1 Which of the following cannot be classed as a market structure? a. Oligopoly. b. Perfect competition. c. Communism. d. Monopolistic competition. 2 Income and population are two variables that can be used in ______ segmentation: a. psychographic b. demographic c. lifestyle d. behavioural 3 Strong exchange rates can: a. help stimate consumer purchasing power. b. help predict change in lifestyle across Europe. c. predict the evolution of sales for particular brands. d. drive imports to become cheaper. 4 BERI stands for: a. Business Economic Risk Index. b. Business Economic Rating International. c. Business Education Rating Indicator. d. Business Environment Risk Index. 5 The size and liquidity requirements are based on the minimum invest ability requirements for the MSCI Global Standard Indices. (a) True (b) False 6 Oligopoly is a market structure in which a small number of firms account for the whole industry’s output. (a) True (b) False The number of firms and product differentiation are extremely crucial in determining the nature of competition in a market. (a) True (b) False 8 type of market structure represented by the constant returns to scale (CRS) technology includes a. Monopolistic competition b. Oligopoly c. Duo poly d. Perfect competition 9 In industries in which there are scale economies, the variety of goods that a country can produce is constrained by a. the fixed cost b. the size of the labor force c. the marginal cost d. the size of the market 10 A monopoly firm engaged in international trade but enjoying a protected home market will a. quate marginal costs with foreign marginal revenues. b. equate marginal costs with marginal revenues in both domestic and foreign markets c. equate average costs in local and foreign markets d. none of the above 11 Minimum efficient scale of production in relation to the overall industry output and market requirement sometimes play a major role in shaping the market structure. (a)True (b) False 12 Price and output decisions of firms that want to maximize profits always depend on costs. (a) True (b) False 13 Which of the following is NOT a financial objective of pricing? a. Corporate growth. b. Return on investment. c. Profit maximization. d. None of these 14 Which of the following is NOT a marketing objective? a. Cash flow. b. Positioning. c. Volume sales. d. None of these 15 Setting a price below that of the competition is called: a. Skimming. b. Penetration pricing. c. Competitive pricing. d. None of these 16 Which of the following is NOT a reason for cutting prices? a. Capacity utilisation. b. Increasing profit margins. c. Market defence. d. None of these 17 Which of the following is NOT a reason for increasing prices? a. Cost pressures. b. Price comparison. c. Curbing demand. d. None of these 18 The costs that depend on output in the short run are: a. both total variable costs and total costs. b. total costs only. c. total fixed cost only. d. total variable costs only 19 A firm will shut down in the short run if: a. fixed costs exceed revenues. b. total costs exceed revenues. c. it is suffering a loss. d. variable costs exceed revenues. 20 In the long run, every cost is variable cost. In this period, all costs ever incurred by the firm must be recovered. (a)True (b) False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (d) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (d) 11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 16(b) 17(b) 18(a) (d) 9 (d) 14(a) 19(d) 5 (a) 10 (b) 15(b) 20(a) Chapter-12 PERFECT COMPETITION 1. A perfectly competitive firm will maximize profit at the quantity at which the firm’s marginal revenue equals a. price b. average revenue c. total cost d. marginal cost 2 Which of the following is not a valid option for a perfectly competitive firm? a. Increasing its output. b. Decreasing its out put. c. Increasing its price. d. Increasing its resources. 3 In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all but which of the following: a. Economic profit b. Allocative Efficiency c. Productive Efficiency d. Normal profit 4 If the price a firm receives for its product is equal to the marginal cost of producing that product, the firm is: a. Always earning an economic profit b. Always productively efficient. c. Always allocatively efficient. d. Always experiencing an economic loss. 5 A firm that is producing at the lowest possible average cost is always: a. Earning an economic profit. b. Productively efficient. c. Dominating the other firms in the market. d. Not producing enough output. 6 Which of the following is the best example of a perfectly competitive market? a. diamonds b. athletic shoes c. soft drinks d. arming 7 Perfect competition is an industry with a. a few firms producing identical goods. b. many firms producing goods that differ somewhat. c. a few firms producing goods that differ somewhat in quality. d. many firms producing identical goods. 8 In a perfectly competitive industry, there are a. many buyers and many sellers. b. many sellers, but there might be only one or two bu yers. c. many buyers, but there might be only one or two sellers. d. one firm that sets the price for the others to follow. 9 In perfect competition, the product of a single firm a. is sold to different customers at different prices. b. as many perfect complements produced by other firms. c. has many perfect substitutes produced by other firms. d. is sold under many differing brand names. 10 In perfect competition, restrictions on entry into an industry a. do not exist. b. apply to labor but not to capital. c. apply to both capital and labor. d. apply to capital but not to labor. 11 Price for a firm under monopolistic competition is ______. a. equal to marginal revenue b. greater than marginal revenue c. less than marginal revenue d. greater than total revenue 12 In the long run, monopolistically competitive firms tend to experience ______. a. high economic profits b. ero economic profits c. negative economic profits d. substantial economic losses 13 Marginal revenue for a monopolis t is ______ a. equal to price b. greater than price c. less than price d. equal to average revenue 14 Perfect competitions describes a market structure whose assumptions are extremely strong and highly unlikely to exist in most real-time and real-world markets. (a)True (b) False 15 Monopolistic competition is a market structure characterized by a large number of relatively small firms. (a)True (b) False 16 A monopolist can sell more of his output only at a lower price and can reduce the sale at a high price. a)True (b) False 17 A monopoly is a market structure in which there is not only one producer/seller for a product. (a)True (b) False 18 A perfectly competitive firm produces the profit-maximizing quantity of output that equates marginal revenue and marginal cost. (a)True (b) False 19 A perfectly competitive firm faces †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. production alternatives based on a comparison of price, average total cost, and average variable cost. a. four short-run b. three short-run c. five short-run d. All of these 20 A perfectly competitive firm’s marginal cost curve that lies above the †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. of the average variable cost curve is its supply curve. . minimum b. maximum c. both(a) and (b) d. None of these Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (a) 11(a) 12(b) 13(a) 16(b) 17(b) 18(a) 4 (c) 9 (c) 14(a) 19(b) 5 (b) 10 (a) 15(a) 20(a) Chapter-13 OLIGOPOLY AND PRICING STRATEGIES 1 A price- and quantity-fixing agreement is known as: a. game theory. b. price leadership. c. collusion. d. price concentration. 2 A group of firms that gets together to make price and output decisions is called: a. a cartel. b. price leadership. c. an oligopoly. d. a concentrated industry 3 Products produced by oligopolistic ? rms are: a. Homogeneous. b. Heterogeneous. . Differentiated. d. Heterogeneous or differentiated. 3 Oligopoly is the only market structure characterized by: a. Interdependence in pricing and output decisions. b. Differentiated products. c. Barriers to entry. d. Pro? t-maximizing behavior. 4 Oligopoly is characterized by all of the following except: a. A few large ? rms. b. Differentiated product. c. Difficult entry into the industry. d. Price competition 5 A major threat to longer term profits exists when barriers to entry into an industry are high. (a)True (b) False 6 Under kinked demand theory the prices of oligopolists are predicted to be rather rigid or ‘sticky’. a)True (b) False 7 In contestable markets, large oligopolistic firms end up behaving like: a. a monopoly. b. monopolistically competitive firms. c. a cartel. d. perfectly competitive firms 8 Which of the following types of oligopoly competition would you expect to result in the highest market output, other things equal? a. b. c. d. Stackelberg. Bertrand. Cornet. Collusion 9 The demand curve has a kink at the price which is equal to full cost price. (a) True (b) False 10. An pro? t maximizing, oligopolistic firms pr oduces at an output level where: a. P = ATC. b. MR = MC. c. MR = ATC. d. AVC MR. e. P = MR 11 Cartels are most likely to arise in which of the following market structures? a. Perfect competition. b. Monopolistic Competition. c. Oligopoly. d. Monopoly. 12 A cartel is a formal collusive organization of the oligopoly firms in an industry. (a) True (b) False 13 Needs such as training the group, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-leaders may be called: a. team functions. b. work functions. c. individual functions. d. task functions. 14 The Hall and flitch model of the kinked demand curve is based on an empirical survey of a sample of 38 well managed arms in England. a) True (b) False 15 The model uses the analytical tools of reaction functions of the duopolists derived on the basis of is not profit curves. (a) True (b) False 16 The important models of non-collusive oligopoly are: (a) Cournot model, (b) Kinked Oligopoly demand curve models. (a) True (b) False 17 Which of the following is not an operations strategy? a. response b. low-cost lea dership c. differentiation d. technology 18 Which of the following is not one of the leadership styles identified in House’s pathgoal theory? a. Participative. b. Employee-centered. c. Directive. d. Achievement-oriented. 9 The petroleum industry is an example of a. monopolistic competition. b. pure oligopoly. c. duopoly. d. differentiated oligopoly. 20 The kinked demand curve model assumes that a. firms match price increases, but not price cuts. b. demand is more elastic for price cuts than for price increases. c. changes in marginal cost can never lead to changes in market price. d. None of the above is correct. Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 6 (b) 7 (a) 8 (b) 11(b) 12(c) 13(a) 16(a) 17(d) 18(b) 4 (a) 9 (b) 14(a) 19(b) 5 (d) 10 (a) 15(b) 20(d) Chapter-14 PROFIT ANALYSIS 1. A variable cost is a cost that a. varies per unit at every level of activity b. occurs at various times during the year c. varies in total in proportion to changes in the level of activity d. may not be incurred, depending on management’s discretion 2. A cost which remains constant per unit at various levels of activity is a a. variable cost b. fixed cost c. mixed cost d. manufacturing cost 3. A fixed cost is a cost which a. varies in total with changes in the level of activity b. remains constant per unit with changes in the level of activity c. varies inversely in total with changes in the level of activity d. emains constant in total with changes in the level of activity 4. Cost behavior analysis is a study of how a firm’s costs a. relate to competitors’ costs b. relate to general price level changes c. respond to changes in activity levels within the company d. respond to changes in the gross national product 5. Cost behavior analysis applies to a. retailers b. wholesalers c. manufacturers d. all entities 6. The relevant range of activity refers to the a. geographical areas where the company plans to operate b. activity level where all costs are curvilinear c. levels of activity over which the company expects to operate d. evel of activity where all costs are constant 7. Which of the following is not a plausible explanation of why variable costs often behave in a curvilinear fashion? a. Labor specialization b. Overtime wages c. Total variable costs are constant within the relevant range d. Availability of quantity discounts 8. Firms operating constantly at 100% capacity a. are common b. are the exception rather than the rule c. have no fixed costs d. have no variable costs 9. Which one of the following is a name for the range over which a company expects to operate? a. Mixed range b. Fixed range c. Variable range d. Relevant range 10 The graph of variable costs that behave in a curvilinear fashion will a. approximate a straight line within the relevant range b. be sharply kinked on both sides of the relevant range c. be downward sloping d. be a stair-step pattern 11. A mixed cost contains a. a variable cost element and a fixed cost element b. both selling and administrative costs c. both retailing and manufacturing costs d. both operating and non-operating costs 12. The variable costing method is also known as the direct costing method indirect costing approach absorption costing method period costing approach 13. The costing approach that charges all manufacturing costs to the product is referred to as a. variable costing b. contribution margin costing c. direct costing d. absorption costing 14. Variable costing is acceptable for a. financial statement purposes b. profit tax purposes c. internal use by management only d. profit tax purposes and for internal use by management 15. CVP analysis does not consider a. level of activity b. fixed cost per unit c. variable cost per unit d. sales mix 16. Which of the following is not an underlying assumption of CVP analysis? a. Changes in activity are the only factors that affect costs b. Cost classifications are reasonably accurate c. Beginning inventory is larger than ending inventory d. Sales mix is constant 17. Which of the following would not be an acceptable way to express contribution margin? a. Sales minus variable costs b. Sales minus unit costs a. b. c. d. c. d. Unit selling price minus unit variable costs Contribution margin per unit divided by unit selling price a. b. c. d. 18. The level of activity at which total revenues equal total costs is the variable point fixed point semi-variable point break-even point 19. The break-even point is where a. otal sales equals total variable costs b. contribution margin equals total fixed costs c. total variable costs equal total fixed costs d. total sales equals total fixed costs 20. Gross profit also includes rent that arises from the entrepreneur’s own land used in his production of output. a. True b. False Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 5. (d) 12. (a) 19. (b) 6. (c) 13. (d) 20. (a) Chapter-15 1. There are †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. methods which can be used to appraise any investment project: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 2. National income is the total of the value of the goods and the services which are produced in an economy. (a) True (b) False 3. Which two of the following are likely to raise the equilibrium value of National Income? (a) Rise in savings. (b) Rise in imports. (c) Rise in government spending. (d) Rise in exports. 4. Which two of the following are excluded when measuring National Income? (a) Value added in the output method. (b) Value of intermediate inputs in the output method. (c) Consumer spending in the expenditure method. (d) Transfer payments in the income method. 5. The return on an investment comes in the form of a stream of earnings in the future. (a) True (b) False 6. Cost-benefit analysis is a process for evaluating the merits of a particular project or course of action in a systematic and rigorous way. (a) True ` (b) False 7. ‘Real’ investment is not (a) the amount that shareholders are willing to provide for shares in a company (b) the cost of development of a new product (c) expenditure on public relations, staff training or research and development (d) expenditure on non-current assets such as plant, machinery, land and buildings 8. Which of the following statements about IRR and NPV is not correct? (a) NPV always gives the correct investment decision. (b) IRR gives an unreliable answer with non-conventional projects. (c) IRR can accommodate changes in the cost of capital. (d) IRR is a useful relative measure if comparing projects of differing sizes. 9. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total market value of all final goods and services currently produced within the domestic territory of a country in a year. (a) True (b) False 10. Which of the following will not be a relevant factor when using the payback method of capital investment appraisal? a) The timing of the first cash inflow (b) The total cash flows generated by the asset (c) The cash flows generated by the asset up to the payback period (d) The cost of the asset 11. Why the payback method is often considered inferior to discounted cash flow in capital investment appraisal? (a) I is more difficult to calculate (b) It does not calculate how long it will take to recoup the money invested (c) It does not take account of the time value of money (d) It only takes into account the future income of a project 12. Gross National Product is the total market value of all final goods and services produced in a year. (a) True (b) False 13. In 2005†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦. was the least significant liability of U. S. nonfinancial businesses in terms of total value. (a) bonds and mortgages (b) bank loans (c) inventories (d) trade debt 14. †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. are examples of financial intermediaries. (a) Commercial banks (b) Insurance companies (c) Investment companies (d) All of the above 15. Financial assets †¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. a) directly contribute to the country’s productive capacity (b) indirectly contribute to the country’s productive capacity (c) contribute to the country’s productive capacity both directly and indirectly (d) do not contribute to the country’s productive capacity either directly or indirectly 16. The means by which individuals hold their claims on real assets in a welldevelopedeconomy are (a) investment assets. (b) depository assets. (c ) derivative assets (d) financial assets 17. Capital budgeting is the process of evaluating and selecting long-term investments that are consistent with the goal of the firm. a) True (b) False 18. Although derivatives can be used as speculative instruments, businesses most often use them to (a) attract customers. (b) appease stockholders. (c) offset debt. (d) hedge 19. The investment in fixed assets increases the fixed cost of the firm which must be recovered from the benefit of the same project. (a)True (b) False 20. National Income is defined as the sum total of all the goods and services produced in a country, in a particular period of time. (a) True (b) False Answer 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a) Chapter-16 1. In period of inflation, phantom or paper profits may be reports as a result of using the: (a) FIFO costing assumption (b) Perpetual inventory method (c) L IDO costing assumption (d) Periodic inventory method 2. Inflation is: (a) an increase in the overall price level. (b) an increase in the overall level of economic activity. (c) a decrease in the overall level of economic activity. (d) a decrease in the overall price level. 3. Aggregate supply is the total amount: (a) produced by the government. (b) of goods and services produced in an economy. c) of labour supplied by all households. (d) of products produced by a given industry. 4. The value of a dollar does not stay constant when there is inflation. (a) True (b) False 5. The inflation rate in India was recorded at 7. 23% in†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ (a) April of 2009 (b) April of 2010 (c) April of 2011 (d) April of 2012 6. The function of money that helps assess the opportunity cost of an activity is money’s use as a (a) medium of exchange. (b) store of value. (c) unit of account. (d) store of debt. 7. An official measure of money in the United States is M1, which consists of the sum of (a) currency plus traveler’s checks. b) currency plus checkable deposits. (c) currency plus traveler’s checks plus checkable deposits. (d) currency plus traveler’s checks plus time deposits. 8. Implies no trade-off between unemployment and inflation. (a) GDP deflator (b) Shoe leather’ costs (c) Long-run Phillips curve (d) ‘Menu’ costs 9. The inflation rate is used to calculate the real interest rate, as well as real increases in wages. (a) True (b) False 10†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦ the quantity of money in the United States. (a) The State Department controls (b) The Department of Treasury controls (c) The Federal Reserve System controls (d) Commercial banks control 11. There are broadly †¦.. ways of controlling inflation in an economy. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 12. The balance of payments of a country is said to be in equilibrium when the demand for foreign exchange in exactly equivalent to the supply of it. (a) True (b) False 13. A general decline in prices is often caused by a reduction in the supply of†¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦Ã¢â‚¬ ¦.. (a) money or debit (b) money or credit (c) money (d) None of these 14. The opportunity cost of holding money is the (a) inflation rate minus the nominal interest rate. (b) nominal interest rate. (c) real interest rate. (d) unemployment rate. 15. If the Fed is worried about inflation and wants to raise the interest rate, it (a) increases the demand for money. (b) increases the supply of money. (c) decreases the demand for money. (d) decreases the supply of money. 16. The circular flow of goods and incomes shows the relationship between: (a) income and money. (b) goods and services. (c) firms and households. (d) wages and salaries. 17. Fiscal measures to control inflation include taxation, government expenditure and public borrowings. (a) True (b) False 18. Hyperinflation (a) occurs in the United States during each business cycle. b) occurs only in theory, never in reality. (c) has never occurred in the United States. (d) happens in all countries at some time during their business cycle. 19. Hyperinflation refers to a situation where the prices rise at an alarming high rate. (a) True (b) False 20. The inflation rate is used to calculate the real interest rate, as well as real increases in wages. (a)True (b) False Answer 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a) How to cite Sample Questions, Essay examples

Australian Tourism and Their Future for Ecotourism - myassignmenthelp

Question: Discuss about theAustralian Tourism and Their Future for Ecotourism. Answer: Title The change in the taste and preference of the people has given rise to the habits of consumerism and other significant practices. I order to adhere to the interests of the people and making them aware of the biodiversity surrounding them, the national parks and the wildlife reserves are being constructed. Moreover, the actions help in the conservation of the biodiversity as well. In order to keep up to the practices and the actions taken by the governments tourism is being developed in order to raise the finance for maintaining the facilities that are being provided to the wildlife[1]. The report will be aiming at the future of the ecotourism in Australia based on the availability of the wildlife reserves and the sanctuaries that forms a greater part of the economy relating to the tourism of the nation. on the other hand the issues relating to the faltering trust of the tourists on the traditional information and the emergence of the Trip Advisor and the like have seriously impacted the eco tourism of the nation. Key information The key issues that are being observed in the present day, relating to the eco tourism of the nation, is based on the faltering trust of the tourist on the traditional sources of information. The technological advancements that are being made by the world has enabled systems and procedures to change rapidly. People nowadays do not rely on the information from the sources of the government and the corporations of the nation[2]. On the other hand, Trip Advisor and the like deliver misleading information to the tourists which h create a heavy impact on the clients choice of the tourist spot. The client is trusting the ratings that are being hypothecated by the websites. Therefore, the misleading information affects the eco tourism of the nation largely. The most common of the issues that are being faced by the nation is based on the international indulgence of the tourism. The international clients expect a varied amount of services to be delivered in order to make use of the various segments. The tourism gets affected when the expected services are not being provided. It affects the rate of the tourism activities and thereby affects the availability of the financial resources for maintaining the eco tourism practices. Large amount of funds are necessary to uphold the practices. Therefore, in order to make use of the economy, the nation must formulate healthy and sufficing tourism activities[3]. The quality of the services that are being provided to the people helps in determining the success of the eco tourism in Australia. The quality of the service determines the tourist retention rate of the nation. In this relation the best services that are being provided to the tourists helps in making the probable progress in the eco tourism industry of the nation[4]. Moreover, it helps in building up the funds in order to make a sustainable journey of conserving the biodiversity of the regions through the wildlife sanctuaries and their maintenance. Financial implications The financial implications include the determination of the funding that are required in order to maintain the services that are being provided to the tourists and also make use of the wildlife sanctuaries in order to attract more tourists to the nation. The maintenance of the wildlife sanctuaries and the national parks not only helps in conserving the endangered species of the region but also makes use of the money that the tourist spends while undertaking their visit to the place[5]. The funding helps in the maintenance of the biodiversity of the place and thereby make it a tourist spot. It also helps in meeting the economic requirements of the nation. The tourism of the nation depends on the financial factors that support the very existence of the source of tourism and therefore in order to maintain the very source, proper funding is required. There are two probable concepts of economics on eco tourism. They are the economic value of the eco tourism and the economic impact[6]. The economic value is being created through the maintenance of the eco tourism, which attracts the tourists from all around the world. On the other hand, the economic impacts can be taken as the implications that the eco tourism enforces on the activities undertaken by the nation for maintaining the tourist spots. In this relation, the economy plays a very important role in creating revenue for the people and also raising funds from the investments of the tourists in order to ensure the safe maintenance of the biodiversity in the national parks and the wild life sanctuaries. The tourism also helps in bringing about a change in the standard of living of the p eople and thereby makes a significant contribution to the treasury. Recommendations In order to bring the significant changes relating to the eco tourism of the nation and thereby bring in sustenance in the process there are certain recommendations that the nation or the committee must undertake[7]. The modification of the policies and the systems helps in determining the probable changes in the tourism and thereby helps in making the work more simple and brief. Based on the requirements of the eco tourism industry the following recommendations can be adhered: Modifying the websites Modifying the websites that provides the tourists with the information on the systems of the tourism is an important consideration that must be taken by the government or the people looking after the sanctuaries[8]. The information plays a very important role in making the tourist aware of the services available in the area. Tourism is a vast and growing industry which includes many factors. Therefore, in order to maintain the tourism all the authorities must consider the factors and design steps for improving the information access of the tourist. Improving the Quality of services The quality of the services that are being provided by the authorities is again an important step that must be taken by the tourism industry in order to maintain and retain the client relations. It helps in maintaining a stable growth of the economy. The services that are being provided to the people helps in determining the tourism that the nation undertakes[9]. The globalization has led to newer concept, which enabled people to visit the best tourism destinations. The quality of the services that are being provided, helps in retaining the tourists largely and thereby it affects the funds that the nation aims at raising for the maintenance of the resources. Title The main objective of the reports is to demonstrate the importance of the industry and the issues that are being faced by the eco tourism in Australia. it helps in understanding the different aspects in which the issues can be addressed and the problems can be solved. the tourism helps in raising the funds and therefore is an important consideration that must be taken by the authorities in order to make a gradual progress in the methodology of the eco tourism. The conservation of the biodiversity is dependents on making the most out of the sanctuaries and thereby improves the economy of the nation[10]. Rationale The benefits for undertaking the recommendations that are being enumerated in the previous section of the report is based on the retention of the tourists through improvising the services that are being provided bu the authorities and the facilities that the tourists are entitled with. Moreover, the retention rate of the tourists helps in improving the retention rate of the tourists. It helps in improving the economic condition of the people and maintains the sanctuaries that are the source of income for the people. The funds also contribute to the treasury of the nation and therefore it helps in improving the standard of living of the nation[11]. On the other hand, the improvements and the modifications made in the information systems helps the people in achieving the correct information from the reliable sources. The dependence of the people on the information that is being provided largely affects the tourism industry of the nation. in most of the cases the information affects the tourism based on the rating s of the services that are being provided by the external websites hypothetically. The ratings affect the mentality of then people as they suppose that the tourism might be just a waste of resources, as they do not expect quality in the services that are being provided. Therefore, the right kind of information helps in making the tourists understand of the probable facilities that the tourist might be attaining through their visit[12]. Consultation The steps that are being undertaken by the units is based on the modification that are being undertaken by the units in order to promote tourism. The most important consideration that is being undertaken by the authorities is based on the requirements of the industry adhering to the valid recommendations that are being formulated[13]. In order to take the steps, the authorities and the governing bodies have formulated teams to administer over the services that are being provided to the tourists for the better understanding of their priorities. References Spenceley, A. ed., 2012.Responsible tourism: Critical issues for conservation and development. Routledge. Newsome, D., Moore, S.A. and Dowling, R.K., 2012.Natural area tourism: Ecology, impacts and management(Vol. 58). Channel view publications. Whitelaw, P.A., King, B.E. and Tolkach, D., 2014. Protected areas, conservation and tourismfinancing the sustainable dream.Journal of Sustainable Tourism,22(4), pp.584-603. Mason, P., 2015.Tourism impacts, planning and management. Routledge. Zahra, A. and McGehee, N.G., 2013. Volunteer tourism: A host community capital perspective.Annals of Tourism Research,42, pp.22-45. Andersson, T.D. and Lundberg, E., 2013. Commensurability and sustainability: Triple impact assessments of a tourism event.Tourism Management,37, pp.99-109. Hein, L., Miller, D.C. and de Groot, R., 2013. Payments for ecosystem services and the financing of global biodiversity conservation.Current Opinion in Environmental Sustainability,5(1), pp.87-93. Chen, W.Y. and Jim, C.Y., 2012. Contingent valuation of ecotourism development in country parks in the urban shadow.International Journal of Sustainable Development World Ecology,19(1), pp.44-53. Janusz, G.K. and Bajdor, P., 2013. Towards to sustainable tourismframework, activities and dimensions.Procedia economics and finance,6, pp.523-529. Lanfranchi, M., Giannetto, C. and De Pascale, A., 2014. Nature based tourism: Natural balance, impacts and management.Calitatea,15(S1), p.224. McKercher, B. and Prideaux, B., 2014. Academic myths of tourism.Annals of Tourism Research,46, pp.16-28. Prudhomme, B. and Raymond, L., 2013. Sustainable development practices in the hospitality industry: An empirical study of their impact on customer satisfaction and intentions.International Journal of Hospitality Management,34, pp.116-126. Garay, L. and Font, X., 2012. Doing good to do well? Corporate social responsibility reasons, practices and impacts in small and medium accommodation enterprises.International Journal of Hospitality Management,31(2), pp.329-337. Fairhead, J., Leach, M. and Scoones, I., 2012. Green Grabbing: a new appropriation of nature?.Journal of Peasant Studies,39(2), pp.237-261.

Analysis of a Tv Show free essay sample

These attenders share their own experience and ideas of the topic which is given of each episode. The reason that shown at night every week days is because it is the time university students are active at. The content of â€Å"University† bases on the campus life of Taiwanese university students and their experience of it as well as their shared ideas of some hot issues. Most of the type of the content appears in the talk show is about lifestyle such as gossip of celebrities or political personages, fashion, romance, travel, education, career and some interesting or strange phenomenon. It can be also interestingly found that the guests from some of the episodes are comprehensively different identities, for example, one guest is the school beauty and the other, the ugly person from the same university (of course we will never know how much money the production units pay for her to be a guest on TV until you have a try). This phenomenon is called â€Å"binary oppositions†, one of the categories of structuralism. Branston and Stafford claim in the theory of this concept that the reason why people use binary oppositions in myth systems and in language is because they can have a comparison of different key boundaries and cultures, especially with unequal value attached to one side of the pairing. One example of using binary oppositions in language is: black/white, hot/cold; etc. The other example is that we know the word ‘man’, but it can mean different things in different contexts. It can be opposed to ‘boy’ in some context such as ‘act like man not a boy’, or to ‘woman’, or even to ‘beast’, for instance, ‘are you a man or a mouse? ’(Branston, G. and Stafford, R, 2010) Producer of the talk show invites a school beauty and an ugly person at the same time tends to have a comparison of them and tries to tell the media audience take care of their appearance properly is sometimes important both to self and to others. The performance of university students in the talk show is another important figure in this essay. According to Goffman’s statement he asserts that the word ‘person’ is not just the first original meaning: a mask, it is more like recognition of the fact that each person is somewhat playing a role everywhere. They know each other and also know themselves through playing these roles. (Goffman, E. , 1959) Goffman believes that individuals and society are related to each other with a deep interaction, he stresses the fact that there are cultural differences in the arts of impression management, when people are playing a role of others, they are finding for the facts of the situation as well. It would be useful to know the innermost feelings and thoughts of those involved in a given interaction. Since this kind of information is rarely available, the individual tends to employ substitutes as predictive ways. †(Goffman, E. , 1959) The more an individual is concerned with the reality of a situation, the more he must focus on appearances. As performers, individua ls are concerned with giving the impression that they live up to the many standards by which they and their products are judged. Goffman also accepts that when an individual is acting, he is regarded as a performer at one side also as a character to the other side. The character is a mask which uses for the current situation, the performer himself need to use different skills to play his role. During the experience of the involvers themselves in the talk show they claim that the main reason they have the chance to perform in public is due to their identity a university student, however this identity also becomes a character in the talk show. The production units of this TV program give these involvers masks and require them to play a good part of the situation as they are â€Å"just like those university students† indeed. Goffman’s statement can also bring out the limitation of â€Å"University†. For example, once a performer needs to have a successful performance, he has to exaggerate his role so as to enable audience to recognize that they, the performers, are imitating someone else known by people. If audiences have recognized the person they are imitating, they will think the ability of these performers are brilliant, and will pay more attention on the entertainment effect. As a result of this, the production unit will then choose performers who have high sense of humour rather than the ‘standard identity of university student’ originally. It violates the initial purpose of producing the talk show. From the analysis above, the influence of this talk show can be found that the words said by attenders in the talk show can have an effect on the ideology of audience. For instance, if attenders in the talk show are inclined to western culture, the traditional culture of Taiwan can be ignored. In other words, ideology changes culture. It is said that â€Å"Lifestyle magazines and television programs are primarily consumer-based products that aim to make a profit by ‘selling’ particular types of audience to advertisers. They are literally offering their readers a ‘’lifestyle† in other words, a model on which base their lives at this particular moment and the goods necessary to accommodate it. † (Rayner, P. and Wall, P. , 2008) The more audiences rely on this kind of talk show, the more demands they need both on material and ideological aspects. As a summary, this essay reveals the performance of performers from different universities of Taiwan who play in the television show ‘University ’. The identities of these performers are university students both in the show and in real life; however they wear masks when playing as roles. While they are playing a role of others, they are finding for the facts of the situation at the same time. Moreover, performers need to use different skills to play their roles well for the appropriate situation as well. The ‘University’ television show gains a number of praise but also reflects the limitation. Due to the preference of audience that focus on the entertainment effect rather than the standard of the identity of performers who are university students originally, performers exaggerate their attitudes instead of declaring their viewpoints fairly, which may influence the ideology of audience. Such lifestyle television program can become consumer-based products that aim to make a profit by changing ideology of audience and ‘selling’ them to advertisers, as a result, it is important to consider seriously about the values of such kind of television talk show.